सविता यन्त्रैः पृथिवीमरम्णादस्कम्भने सविता द्यामदृंहत् । अश्वमिवाधुक्षद्धुनिमन्तरिक्षमतूर्ते बद्धं सविता समुद्रम् ॥

Savitā has fixed the earth with fetters; Savitā has made the heaven firm in a place where there was no support; Savitā has milked the cloud of the firmament bound to the indestructible (ether) like a tremblinghorse (?).

Throughout the Rigveda Samhita these deeds are associated with Indra.

I get 10th mandala is a little fringe even in Rigveda, but Sayana also writes in the commentary of 3.33.6

(Verse) इन्द्रो अस्माँ अरदद्वज्रबाहुरपाहन्वृत्रं परिधिं नदीनाम् । देवोऽनयत्सविता सुपाणिस्तस्य वयं प्रसवे याम उर्वीः |

Sayana's commentary: Savitā: epithet of Indra, the impeller or animator of the world: savitā sarvasya jagataḥ prerakaḥ

Presumably related: in 4.26.1 Indra says he alone was Manu and Surya. The verse is attributed to VAmadEva Gautama so I presume it's an early verse.

अहं मनुरभवं सूर्यश्चाहं कक्षीवाँ ऋषिरस्मि विप्रः । I have been the Manu, I am Surya also, I am the Vipra (sage) Kakshivan.

So is it possible, just like Brahmanaspati, Savitar was also identified as an epithet of Indra during early Rigveda?

In the study of the substrate lexicon of IE we see a lot of words that are either related to agriculture or the flora and fauna of Europe. Most of the stuff I’m seeing published on it eg the Kroonen book seems to assume, to varying degrees of confidence, that these loans happened after the split of the late IE branches. I haven’t seen any reasoning for this via dating the loans based on sound changes, but I have seen the case made that their unpredictable alternations lead us to believe they were borrowed from a dialect continuum instead of a language.

I am wondering if there’s any reason to believe that these loans may have all happened at one moment, say contact with cucuteni-tripilia or what have you, and that alternations are due to mismatches in phonologies. This would kind of remove credibility from this basque-etruscan-hatto-sumerian thing, from which people are expecting all of these incredibly similar loans to have retained their form since the Neolithic, and then diverged unrecognizably since the Bronze Age

Hello so I read somewhere that they had steppe dna:unsure how true that is. If anyone has any idea how much steppe they had,if it is not so troublesome: qpAdm results preferably. Thank you for your time.

Link: https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/radiocarbon/article/royal-burials-and-chariots-from-sinauli-uttar-pradesh-india-radiocarbon-dating-and-isotopic-analysis-based-inferences/A33F911D8E6730AE557E1947A66A583C

I am so confused because I thought it was clear there were no domesticated horses / chariots during the IVC time. I thought it wasn't settled at all that the Sinauli findings were a chariot or a cart, and definitely they weren't spoked wheels. But now this recent study openly claims it's a chariot. What do we think?

Do the Nuristanis have an equivalent of the term 'Aryan' in their languages like Iranic peoples and Indo-Aryans do?

I was just asking, because I've noticed that while the 2 groups have referred to themselves and their lands as such for a long time, I have never stumbled across a Nuristani equivalent, assuming that it is in fact its own branch and not just a Dardic group.

I'm just curious here.

The Xiongnu are Indo-Europeans? I have read that the origins of the Xiongnu remain uncertain, but the hypothesis of a migration of Indo-Iranians is plausible. If we add to this their contacts with the Yuezhi, whom they expelled, as well as the parallels between Tengrism and the religion of the Proto-Indo-Europeans (even if this can be explained by a similar nomadic lifestyle ).

I was reading the Wikipedia page for the extinct Langobardic language and it claims that althought not accepted by most of the academic community, some scholars believe that the modern Cimbrian and Mòcheno languages are descended from Lombardic. Why do they believe so?

What the title says.

I know of dharma and firm as well as vajra and waker. Anymore that y’all know of?

Hey everyone, I'm preparing a presentation on the history of verbal aspect in Slavic and want to dedicate one slide to the PIE verbal system. Of course I will talk about the verbal stems and tenses, but I would also like to give one or two examples. What I gather from Fortson 2004 it could look like this:

present stem: *bhér-e-ti ‚he/she carries‘ - *é-bher-e-t ‚he/she was carrying‘ (impf.) - *é-bher-s-t ‚he/she carried‘ (aor.)

aorist stem: *steh2- ‚stand‘ - *(e-)steh2-t ‚he/she stood‘ (Aor.)

Is the sigmatic aorist *é-bher-s-t correct? (Fortson says *bher- formed an s-aorist but doesn't spell it out) And what would the present of *steh2- look like?

I've only taken very small introductory courses on PIE linguistics so I'm a little out of my depth here, but I find it both fascinating and important so I really want to cover it in the presentation :)

I'm also thankful for any reading suggestions on the PIE verbal system especially with regard to aspect!

Hey guys, I'm just a casual enthusiast in IE ancestry so don't take my word for anything.

Could it be possible Steppe women (MLBA) somehow interacted with the AASI rich men (possibly IVC) that gave birth to the Vedic culture we know today? I know steppe mediated migration of women are not dominant, but maybe ignited the spark of its existence?

From what I know, ancient women spent more time nurturing children and managing households, which means they are more likely to imbibe their cultures and habits down to their children. Then, the men started appearing too, through word of mouth and eventually gave birth to the the Early Vedic civilization (Early Steppe Migrations were female mediated).

I remember how Basque survived despite most of the speakers being of IE lineage, and there's a popular opinion that women passed down the culture and traits to their children. That's where I got the inspiration from.

What do you guys think? Do you think Sintashta women were the early pall bearers of Vedic Civilisation?

Looking for pointers towards the archaeological evidence of horses, chariots, and similar things dating back to atleast the 15th - 12th c. BCE. Met someone willing to dismiss the whole Vedic Age due to a lack of archaeological evidence // Even old inscriptions barely breaking the 3rd c. BCE limit