Do North Italians really resemble Roman Republic era in genetic. Also we're they eastern/ resemble Greek Islanders before that. Becuase I know they had eastern migrations making them more Greek/eastern. In Latium ( know as Lazio know) what did they genetically resemble genetically when the language (Latin) first started. Thanks!

By collapse, I mean major negative internal change, whether that be by revolution, civil war, or economic depression, etc. Any time period and geographic area.

I'm most curious in how each community is affected in different ways, including things like mortality, food availability, social support, and so on.

If you were to live through such a collapse and could choose where to live, would you pick a city, the suburbs, or the country?

I am writing an essay on the causes of the Qing dynasty decline--specifically how strongly this can be linked to the opium wars. It is just a highschool essay, but I'm looking for some good books/sources to help me out (they can disprove or prove the claim that the opium wars were a decisive factor).

Any helps appreciated!

Breaking In The Habit (aka Fr. Casey) has brought this up on occasion when discussing the history of the OFM and the Reformation but not really gone into great detail as to what it entailed. Given his likely institutional bias in discussing the matter I wanted to see what our community of historians had to say on it.

Hello everybody!

I was thinking about associacionism and the labour movement, and I remember reading somewhere about the importance of solidarity in it.

Besides the common "common piggy bank" and solidarity dinning rooms, I quite remember reading that in some places workers organized to improve their infrastructure (street maintenance, and such) and create some type of public transport. I have been looking for sources of these, but I found no proof or article about it. Does any of you know if this happened and there is a reliable source?

Besides, I would be interested in knowing more about any unique type of political action they took. I know the common ones: occupation of spaces, boycott, different types of strikes, etc. Or course labour extends to diferent time & places, but maybe you know if some found unique ways to protest.

Thanks a lot to everybody :)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crusades_against_Christians

I see so many later religious wars here (in the "Crusades" template in the right when you browse Wikipedia in desktop mode) considered as part of the Crusades such as the Hussite Wars, and even the Wars of the Holy League going as late as the 18th century! It seems that the impression made is that the Crusades didn't end after the Middle Ages.

How about the Spanish Armada? Is it just due to historiography that it is not considered a part of the Crusades, when earlier Crusades against Christians deemed heretical such as the Albigensian Crusade were definitely considered a part of the Crusades?

Stretching the question even further, can we even talk of religious wars that are "Crusades" even in the 20th to 21st century, or when can we definitely mark an end where the Papacy stopped being involved in any military adventures. I can think of lots of wars today, even at present where Christian denominations are involved, but perhaps a definitive end to the "Crusades" is the end of the involvement of the Papal States or the Papacy.

If we use Nazi Germany as an example, has there ever been a country that looked like it was on the path to become like that only for it to be stopped before it got to that point? If so, what was different? How did the rise stop? Was it just as simple as pulling a second Mario brother on the head of the state or did something else contribute? And how did they undo the propaganda that brainwashed their citizens?

Also, forgive me if I broke any rules, first time posting in this sub and was curious, thank you for your time 🙂

Historically ofc I know that the character Gandalf is based off of Odin, or the biblical Magi, but I was wondering if his 'wandering wise man, advisor of kings' gimmick had any root in reality. Part of me thinks it's plausible, but I also doubt that kings or queens would've let some smelly old dude into their court to spout their opinion.

Reposting this here after asking asklinguistics.

Most academic sources I've looked at assume this to be self-evident and provide no evidence for it.

I know that there was a wave of workers who either temporarily worked in or emigrated during the 1930’s to the Soviet Union, with many of them being executed, imprisoned, or fleeing during the purges.

After reading some of Nicholas Burlak’s story as an American born (Ukrainian parents however) volunteer in the Red Army during World War 2 who continued to live in the Soviet Union until it collapsed, I started to wonder how it was for foreigners from places like America, Canada, or the United Kingdom after World War 2.

Did they face the same sort of repression that those before them in the 1930’s did?

Hello, I’m on a mission to mix a fairly thick historical book in with my other reading every month for the next year to have a generalized understanding of World History, I’m moving region to region, and my first region is Britain.

I picked this book up thinking it would be a good overview of the socioeconomic factors and decisions that led to the success of Britain as an empire builder from the 17th century to present. English is ubiquitous, common law is ubiquitous, and British style governments are commonplace in every developed nation, and I wanted to know how we got here.

I haven’t read much so far but it seems that he is devoting a quarter of every page to somehow justifying Britains decisions. I don’t want to spend the time it takes to read 400 pages of his work if 100 of them are going to be Tony Blair era vindications of the British Empire. I’m conflicted as to whether to push through, because he seems to be giving an entertaining and well organized account of pivotal events, or to cut my losses if I’m going to be reading Torrie nationalist propaganda.

I want mention that I’m not against reading work that challenges my worldview, I just have limited time and don’t want to read something that is focused on converting me politically rather than providing an honest account of events.

Has anyone read his work? Can anyone offer opinions or context that will help me push through?

What was the genesis of the modern concept of war crime being sanctioned by the international community?

I’m also open to books of these native people if anyone has recommendations. Thanks!

Asking as a science fiction writer interested in working with a Paleolithic setting.

As far as I understand, no nomadic hunter gatherer society independently developed a system of written language. That said, could it have been possible? Or would the cultural drivers that would necessitate such a complex and abstract invention have been absent.

Lately, there's been a trend in the exercise world about walking with weights (rucking). Some exercise influencers have even gone as far as to say that we have evolved to carry heavy loads long distances (could not find sources for this). So that got me thinking.
You've run down your prey, and you and the boys have killed. Now what? Do you dress the carcass and carry everything slung on your back? Or do you construct a sled and sled the carcass or carcasses back home for miles?

have we found evidence of sled building in the Paleolithic? stone or bone handles that could be rope tied used to pull a large mammoth meat haul?

It was a profoundly stupid decision that cost them a lot of goodwill with the CIO especially, but also broader American left politics. By the time of McCarthyism, the party had lost influence and was just being hollowed out.

I know that it originated in Greek mythology and there are a lot of stories from Homer and Herodotus about the legend, and I understand the concept of the lesson they were teaching.. but what’s the real story?

Was Mita known as a particularly greedy king? Or was he really good at turning a profit “everything he touches turns to gold”

Is there a reason they used him for this one? Or did they just use a random king to push a point?

The 335-Year War: the conflict that lasted centuries without a single battle

Is it true that this really happened?

Because of recent executive orders, I am growing increasingly interested in how the federal government controls the nation's money, how our current financial system evolved, and how federalism works in the context of finance/banking/monetary policy. I read some Wikipedia pages (see below) but the history of banking seems quite complicated.

Is it just that U.S. states couldn't pay out during a bank run because we were still on the gold standard and they didn't have enough gold? Would state banks still be impossible or non-viable today for the same reasons or has the economy changed enough that the forces that caused the decline of state banks are no longer an issue? What happened in the 20th century that makes it impossible or a bad idea or just not likely for California to issue the equivalent of Treasury bonds to back an independent California State Bank? Or are all my questions based on some basic misunderstanding of how this all works?

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/State_bank_(United_States) https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Reserve https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panic_of_1907

I know it’s not always fair to judge historical figures by our standards today, but surely there were plenty of abolitionists before 1865. When certain people say that you can’t judge the founding fathers for slavery, I find it silly. It’s like saying you can’t judge people for being pro-segregation when it was legal; sure, it was normalized, but there were plenty of people that disagreed with it. Is it irrational to judge slave owners, just because there were abolitionists at the time? What percentage of the population was against slavery throughout American history? Hopefully I’m making sense.

So I actually have series of questions since I've started playing Manor Lords again.

For context Manor Lords is city-builder video game set in 13th Century Holy Roman Empire. According Wikipedia it specifically is set in the German region of Franconia.

The premis of the game is you, the player, are a noble lord charged with building a settlement in territory contested between the king and a rouge baron. You lead a group of settlers to build a community, starting with some homeless peasants leading up to one or more thriving towns, with the ultimate goal of building a noble retuine and a peasant milita to drive the baron from the region. I have a couple questions.

1. Would 13th century Central Europe still have enough "unsettled" lands for this sort of "colony building" endeavor to actually take place? Could/did free individuals take on themselves the task of building entirely new towns or cities from the ground up by this point in time in this part of Europe?

2. Would nobles settle territorial disputes by just building rival towns on the land? Would you actually see members of the nobility given missions or grants to build new towns by their sovereign?

3. In the game you can make choices to build a settlement that is largely self sufficient and does a bit of everything or multiple smaller towns that have specialized economies, ie farming, commercial exchange, production of goods, etc. Did communities in medieval Europe see this kind of specialization or were they focused on self sufficiency?

Is there any documentation or evidence for the proportion of American Legion members at that time who were willing to actively participate? Could the "500,000" man army have materialized if not for the whistleblowing of Smedley Butler?

Radical abolitionists were a small group in the North, so what were the interests behind the abolition of slavery and who would benefit?

I am working on a stage production set during the Reign of Terror and one of the props we need is a gift box from which a teacup will be taken out. What kind of material were these teacups packaged in, and were these cups wrapped or placed in a container? Thank you.