I looked around online and found that there is no copy of the actual Treaty that has survived, and all we know about it is inferred from the work of Nithard.

However, I found a copy of the English translation of his work, Carolingian Chronicles Royal Frankish Annals and Nithards Histories (1972) and in it, at least the copy at my uni library, only goes until March 20th 843, which is half a year before the treaty was signed, and searching for Verdun only gives an account of the partition of the Empire in "837/838" whereby Charles was granted part of the Empire along the River Meuse and Verdun is mentioned as one of the major cities. Is this what scholars refer to when they say "The Treay of Verdun in 843"? The partition of lands in 837?

For what it's worth: I would like the actual historical sources, the earliest we have. Is there a longer translation (literally) of Nithards work that covers September 843? Are there other contemporary sources?

This question is to allow history experts and flaired users to update and expand upon a previous r/AskHistorians thread here due to former moderator and contributor u/itsallfolklore being inactive (?). The moderators directed me to repost the question there to get more detailed folklore answers.

I'm asking about the book, not the movie.

I’m not sure how to word it correctly, but basically when the bombs did drop did the leaders of Japan really care for it at the time? I’ve heard that many Japanese cities were reduced to rubble due to previous conventional bombings from the US. Because of that they didn’t really care about the bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki as they assumed it was the result of bomber fleets.

Is there any truth to the claim?

Was it a compromise between more left leaning people and right-wingers? Was it just to be continuous?

From I undestand, Batu's forces completely destroyed the city and massacred most of its inhabitants. The was rebuilt, of course, as modern Kiev exists, but when? And how?

Thank you.

Hi so i live really near englands most brutal witch hunt in chelmsford where 15 people ended up excuted and many other people ended up dying before the trial matthew hopkins had huge role in. after this he became a full witch hunter who ended up killing 100s of people . how did he become so powerful especially as he was only in his 20s .

Considering how meticulous the Nazi documentation was, and the constant reports to Himmler, I find it hard to believe he would make such a wild overestimate. So what was he trying to do?

Given the repression of Christianity during periods of the Roman Empire, how did Christians preach, recruit, get together, perform rituals and all the other functions of a religion while it was punished by the law?

Hello, I'm new to this sub reddit, and I hope I'm asking the right group.

I’m trying to research how American school discipline changed over the years, and I want to primarily focus on the 1950’s. I know that American Patriotism influenced citizens in general, with the growing conflicts of the Cold War and the focus on technology (i.e., the Space Race) but I’m having trouble finding historical documents to prove this.

Can anyone help?

Also, if there are any other events/acts that contribute, please let me know!

On TIL I saw a post about the number of black slave owners in 1830. A commenter gave an in depth explanation that they used here as a source for. They explained that 1830 was the peak and 75% of the slave owners owned loved ones.

They also explained that the number was drastically lower by the civil war and it's attributed to laws forcing freed slaves to move out of the state they were freed in.

Did that end the practice of buying loved ones and how did those laws impact the mullato owners that are counted in the 1830 number?

The last famous scientists i can remember is Albert Einstein and other scientists around WWII.

To clarify: I wish to to know the economical and political background of Europeans nations before and during the era colonization which led to the colonization of other regions

I read that part of President Biden’s pardon for his son Hunter extended several hours into December after the pardon was actually issued. This made me wonder whether any president had ever pardoned someone for future crimes they may commit.

Has this ever happened before ?

I am in the middle of Persuasion by Jane Austen and there have been several mentions of what I assumed were Royal Navy ship captains having the potential to make a fortune, particularly during war.

There was talk of Captain Wentworth making a small fortune of some 20,000 GBP as a captain but which did not seem to have come from his pay as ship captain. The Admiral has amassed such wealth that he can lease Kellynch Hal, an undertaking so expensive it was in part driving the Ann’s father(actual landed aristocracy) to financial ruin.

This is so alien a concept to me I genuinely don’t understand. The wife of the admiral discusses what I took to be trading expeditions to places like the West Indies. Did the British Royal Navy undertake private commerce at the time? Were these captains allowed to make a fortune trading good/spices/etc while on the job? Or were these spoils of war? Was a captain entitled to rights of defeated vessels or something of the like? Or was it a case where distinguished service awarded some monetary rewards from the crown? Or was this something to do with colonialism and piracy?

Some context would help me understand something that was presumably fully understood by Austen’s contemporaries (and this required no explanation or elaboration) but which makes no sense to me.

The exact calorie content varies, but we know that daily food rations were inadequate and lead to severe malnutrition, illness and death. Are there any historical documents or records that outline the decision-making process behind the allocation of these rations?

So I'm having a hard time finding an answer for this on Google, and maybe it's because the premise of my question is incorrect, but it seems to me that there are greater differences in the Portugese spoken in Brazil and Portugal, than there are in the Spanish spoken in Spain and Latin America. The same can be said for English spoken in the US/Canada, and in England.

When searching this on the internet, I'm finding a lot of explanations of how they are different, but not so much why. So I guess my question is two parts:

1. What are the factors that led to the differences between Portuguese in Brazil and Portugal
2. Why are these differences greater than other former European Colonies in the Americas (if you agree that they are)?

I've read from marijuana advocates that Marijuana was banned in the United States largely due to racist stereotypes around consumption of the drug. That makes enough sense for the United States, but it doesn't explain why it would be banned in the Middle East, South Asia, East Asia, South America etc. where often the drug had been well established and there American racial politics wasn't relevant.

So why did the whole world from China, to Norway to Namibia choose to ban Marijuana and why has it been so persistent when other drugs legality (like opiates) have varied in their enforcement significantly.

Hello! I have questions about landownership and the organization of communities in the late middle ages - 14th century Germany to be exact, but everything helps. I know that a lot of landowners gave some of their land to the church and/or funded monasteries. But were there monasteries that did not own the land that they were build on?

For example: a small monastery with a small village around it, whose population tended to the fields, etc. If this land was still owned by a lord, how would that work? Especially if the lord did not live in the village. Would the monastery govern the village? Would the duties of the farmers and workers be to the lord and the monastery?

I hope my questions are understandable. English is not my first language. Thank you.

I am researching Mechthild of Magdeburg for my theology class and can't seem to find much about her online. As of now, I know she was a medieval Christian mystic, but I would love any help you all have in learning more about this woman. Any sources or information would be greatly helpful!! Thank you!!

It seems that Iranian troops were previously deployed in Syria. Even recently. I did not realise Iranians sent their own troops to fight wars in other countries. Although I do realise they send commanders and other technical support. And especially arms and cash. Can someone explain?

Taiwan seems to have had surprisingly little development or interaction with the mainland for millenia despite being right off the coast. Why did it take so long? And on a related note, why did the indigenous peoples never unite into kingdoms or larger polities?

I found this website (https://native-land.ca/) that shows my address (Cresson, PA) as being where borders of Monongahela Culture and Susquehannock converge. Would there really have been anyone here at all or is it just an estimation of where people could have been?

I've been interested for a while but it seems hard to find information, or there was just nothing really in my area.

So Spain, Italy, and Germany all fell under fascist regimes that each held their respective culture/race as the pinnacle of humanity and superior to all others. However, each of these nations have fair amounts of internal regional and local diversity and identities. How did, say the Nazis approach Bavarian or Saxon or Rhinish regionalism under the Reich? Were all Germans, Spaniards, or Italians equal regardless of region or locality, or for example was the Prussian treated as superior to the Bavarian? Were there attempts or plans to create some kind of new Overarching German or Spanish culture or was it expected such regional identities would be permitted to persist?