/r/showerlinguistics
I know some people just say /kæts/ but I've heard many people say /kætsz/
First there are Madonna fans who like to watch the movie Desperately Seeking Susan (Sue as a nickname) by Orion (o-rye-in) Pictures. Then there's residents of Michigan's Lake Orion (or-ee-in) who live near Madonna's hometown who like to go to Sault Ste. Marie for vacation, sometimes called The Soo.
During COVID lockdown, out of curiosity, I have studied and learned the Greek, Russian, and Hebrew alphabets.
Frankly, I cannot help but roll my eyes at the multiple-letters-for-the-same-sound motif. For example, Kaf and Kuf in Hebrew.
So I wonder...Does any alphabet exist that has a 1:1 sound-to-symbol ratio ? And, if not, which alphabet(s) do you think come(s) the closest?
PG to Cockney: uː > əu > æʊ > æː
PG [uː] borrowed into Gallic Vulgar Latin as [u], u > y > ỹ > œ̃ > æ̃
The first-rate fob affixed to finer fob fit fabulously, fully, and firmly within the fanatical, fobbing fob's foul fob.
So my train of thought is this.
Let's suppose there be a primitive civilization that has not yet developed its language to the full extent of 'language' we know today. We know that they use spears to hunt deer. One day one of them utters the following:
I-out spear deer
from-me > spear > deer
Time passes and the word for 'spear' is epitomized as 'kill' because they use spears exclusively for killing things.
The sentence then comes to mean
from-me > kill > deer
Let's say that the 'from'-substance is analyzed either into an ergative case suffix or an ergative particle.
In a society where they, say, fished and only used direct physical contact to hunt animals there wouldn't necessarily be a tendency to utter things where from the agent something happens to the object.
All I know of ergativity is that in Basque the ergative case suffix is -k and both the ablative and the partitive suffixes end in -k (-tik and -rik, respectively).