I've seen a lot of attempts to connect Hebrew with Indo-European, but I've seen far fewer people discuss Hebrew as a Paleo-European language.

We know the earliest farmers in Europe derive from the Anatolian region, who developed closely with the Levantine population. These earliest farmers spread out during the Chalcolithic, deep into Europe as well as deep into central Eurasia, with the first Mesopotamian cultures potentially deriving from these Levantine and Anatolian farmers.

Now, my point here is not to shoehorn all things eastern into a European origin, but why are Paleo-European and these other Pre-Indo-European languages not grouped together? Has anyone tried?

Edit: What I've heard is that Hebrew is connected to Iberian.

Who are the people with most Bell beaker ancestry between modern populations ?

Ancient historians, especially Tacitus, wrote about a wild people of hunter gatherers living in modern Finland, the Fenni, primitive hunter gatherers from no more than 1,500 - 2,000 years ago. While they are often identified with the Saami, the Saami are reinder herders for the most part, or at least were until a few centuries ago.

Could the Fenni, also known as Skriqifinoi, be rather the Paleolaplanders, ancestors of the Saami who got Uralicized by mixing with Uralic speaking Siberian migrants, got into herding and became the Saami themselves, but in some areas stayed the same as they were until about 500 AD, or the Paleolakelanders ?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goidelic_substrate_hypothesis

How probable is it to be true?

I.e. if the (non-indo-european) Germanic Substrate Hypothesis is true

I'm relatively new to this but curious about putting pieces of the puzzle of European prehistory together. From what I understand, the Cro-Magnons were the first anatomically modern humans to populate Europe (absorbing some of the remaining Neanderthals but generally out-competing them and causing their extinction). They were also known as Early European modern humans, who practiced a hunting and gathering lifestyle and were dominant in Europe around 40kya (possibly entering even earlier), and Upper Paleolithic. They may have originally come to Europe via Western Asia. They had material culture preserved in the form of cave paintings and Venus figurines, and I think the Gravettian culture was one of the examples.

Then Western Hunter Gatherers seem to have formed as a population with a genetic signature around 14kya during the later Ice Age, also supposedly entering via West Asia or Southeast Europe. I've read that they split from Ancestral North Eurasians before 24kya, probably more. They may have had some association with the Epigravettian culture. I take it they weren't directly related to Cro-Magnon but maybe absorbed some of their remnants in Europe? Were Cro-Magnon descendants still around in Europe by this time, and how did they adapt to the Ice Age? Because you can still find traces of their genes in modern people (including the Neanderthal they absorbed).

I know that the Corpus we have of the Thracian language is extremelly small, but I wonder what are the theories that exist for now.

Sometimes I see a lot of what seems like pseudo-science to me that claims that the language is actually Bulgarian... is this accurate at all?

Have there been any recent findings? Sometimes people talk about AI being able to help in these situations, I wonder if that could be implemented in this case?

Also, do you have any suggestions in articles, papers, websites, thesis, books that I could read about the Thracian language and its culture? Thank you in advance!

How much do we know about the Turduli and their language?

Are there any good resources to read about them? If you could suggest any books, articles, websites... please feel fee to share. It can be in English, Spanish and Portuguese.

What are the current theories about their relationship with the Tartessians? Were they influenced by Tartessians or are they related to the Tartessians?

So apparently, during the Bronze Age, the people living in Sapmi had even more Neo-Siberian ancestry than the Sami living there today, but how is that possible? Aren't Uralic people supposed to be responsible for the transmission of East Eurasian ancestry into Northern Europe? Did they people speak an unknown Uralic language? Do we have any toponyms/words that might suggest what that language was like? Or was it palaeo-European, and how would that have been possible?

Nowadays people associate Iberian with the Iberian Peninsula, however, it used to be the name of a people that lived in the Iberian Peninsula.

How much is it currently known about the Iberian language? I believe there are some inscriptions, but I am not sure if they have been deciphred already.

What are the current theories? Could you recommend me some books, thesis, articles, or even online pages/groups about the Iberian language and even the Iberian people? It can be in Spanish.

Thanks in advance!

Could some small tribes of pure WHG or mostly WHG people, practicing the hunter gatherer lifestyle, having hidden themselves from the Neolithic farmers first, then from the Indo Europeans, and have survived until they lost their habitat from deforestation and urbanization of Europe ? Until the 1600s Europeans spoke about the Woodewose, people dressed in animal skins living like primitives. Overtime, starting in medieval times, people went to believe Woodewose were actually covered in hair as if they were apes. They were quite likely not Neanderthals, even though they may have had higher levels of Neanderthal introgression, so could they have been WHG tribes ? All the other continents do still have some hunter gatherers, even nowadays, after all. Even in the northern half of my country, Italy, quite far from the Central European lands, there are legends about the Woodewose. It could merely be a figment of imagination, or a historical memory about the pre Indo Europeans, but if it is not, if there is something real as its basis, what else could it be ?

I was wondering if there have been any recent findings about the Tartessian language.

Is the script been decyphred? Do you think we will be ever able to find that out? Which are the current theories about the language?

Could you please also share any texts or books that you would recommend for someone to read more about the theme?

​

Is Caucasian Hunter gatherer essentially ancient North Eurasian plus Dzudzuana? What other components are there? And what exactly accounts for the sometimes near indistinguishable differences from Zagrosian? Did one come from another, or did they spread from the same recent source population?

A follow up to my last post on the topic, I have read a fair amount more, and have some ideas as to the origins of the Villabruna cluster. There are three possibilities in my mind. 1. Complete continuity with earlier Gravettians. 2. Complete discontinuity, a replacement migration from Anatolia or the near east. 3. Something in between, (my hypothesis). To start, here’s why seems to be true based on current evidence. Western Hunter gatherers had Y Haplogroup I and maternal Haplogroup U5, like the Gravettians, implying there was certainly some connection. However, they also had more affinity with middle eastern populations than previous European HGs, and geneticists observed discontinuity with certain Gravettian lineages. Finally, Anatolian hunter gatherers turned farmers had Y Haplogroup C and later G2a, and maternal Haplogroup K2. I don’t think option 1. is particularly likely, because of the aforementioned increased Mesolithic affinity with middle easterners, and that some Gravettian lineages seemingly died out. Though it might be true in part. Option 2. is even less likely I think, because as far as I know, Mesolithic European Haplogroups didn’t really exist outside of Europe, making a replacement migration from the near east pretty unlikely. Further evidence against, is that Villabruna ancestry was definitely present in western Europe as early as 19,000 years ago.
Finally, my hypothesis. During the LGM, some Gravettian lineages died off, and other survived, mixing a bit with a middle eastern component. Then from the Balkans and/or south Italy, they expanded west and east, mixing with surviving Magdalenians and Ancient North Eurasians to form new distinct populations. This would square the conflicting evidence, explaining why they had Gravettian Haplogroups but were still distinct from them. What do people think? Obviously I’m just a layperson who has read some of the literature, not an actual prehistorian. Does it seem plausible? Or am I missing something?