Do antipsychotics treat ALL problematic “psychotic” type issues? Or are they ineffective in cases like dementia or narcolepsy?

There is extremely limited amount information regarding this as a possibilty and the studies seemed a bit 'theoretical' and not definitive. I want the experts to chime in on this. Is this a possibility?

And how does it relate to presupposing a frame? Examples would be helpful, thanks!

This sounds like a myth created to support a political narrative, but let me know the research and studies.

First off, I’d like to say I do not mean to sound disrespectful here at all. I am purely curious and want to understand how this works.

For an example, what is the difference between laziness and someone with depression? Is laziness also caused by a lack of dopamine, or is it something else? What’s the difference between the symptom in a depressed person and the symptom in someone without depression?

Is there a certain balance between personality traits to know if two people hypothetically would get along easily? For example, having a certain amount of similar traits but also having a certain amount of dissimilar/complementary traits?

OTOH - is there also a formula to know that two people wouldn't get along at all?

Has a "loneliness epidemic" been common in society even hundreds of years ago or is loneliness really a modern creation?

I sometimes create content to encourage people to learn more from scientific studies and promote critical thinking. I focus mainly on psychology, but I sometimes talk about topics that I care about, even if they are more controversial.

What I have noticed is that most people seem incapable and unwilling to think critically, to value scientific evidence over their personal opinion, to recognize good arguments when they go against their beliefs. Now, I understand this and the mechanisms that contribute to this (biases, fallacies, wanting to maintain our beliefs and self-identity, etc.) However, I keep thinking that people should be capable of thinking critically and they should be interested in that.

But since my attempts clearly fail, I am wondering: is there a way that I could teach, promote, and inspire people to think critically, to understand themselves better, to be more rational in their lives? I would appreciate any suggestions, especially those based on/in line with scientific evidence. Thank you!

Is it possible to show physical symptoms of some mental issues like anxiety, depression etc without actually showing or feeling the emotional symptoms? If possible, what can cause this to happen? And does that mean that you might still have that mental problem?

So here my question. Does "negative" hallucination exist ? Imagine a person that can't see something but not because of visual, or attention disorder but because he/she has the hallucination of the inexistance of the object. For exemple someone says "look the cute dog" and the person respond something like "what dog ? I just see à leash with nothing at the end"

I know low insight/absent insight OCD means people completely believe their fears to be true but when does that spill over leading to diagnosing someone with a delusional disorder or a psychotic disorder?

I’ve seen this hot take from a psychologist and didn’t understand the part with the productivity, because everyone sees it differently. Isn’t productivity just a normal function in order to deal with everyday tasks?

Is there some underlying psychological predisposition that makes someone more likely to fall for fascist propaganda?

Do we know or have done any studies regarding the effect of human being isolated without human contact but with animals?

Like, if a prisoner in SHU had a cat, do we know how the effects of solitary confinement might differ from other prisoners?

Specifically when the antidepressant was given for depression. Is a future hypomanic/ depressive episode likely?

How can mental health professionals differentiate between the four?

As I understand it, schizophreniform disorder is more of a short-lived version of schizophrenia. Brief psychotic disorder is just a more brief period of psychosis and schizotypal pd can include even briefer (??) periods of psychosis but only during periods of high stress.

So how on earth does one even differentiate between the four when seeing a patient that has their first psychotic break?

Can you even diagnose schizophrenia at this point in time, or would you have to wait for a more clear pattern? How long would you have to wait in order to be sure?

Is it true that diagnoses like brief psychotic disorder and schizophreniform disorder are mostly given when clinicians don't really know what's going on?

When I refer to "two people" - this is in the context of friends, colleagues, or any social interaction.

Are we drawn to certain people because of the similarities we both share or is it due to the differences we have?

Is there any neurochemical or emotional reaction going on that leads us to want to be closer to the "Other" or get as far away as possible?

A lot of movies / series sometimes have a character that undergo a massive change in their personality be it morals, views, etc. but are these change in mannerisms realistic? What would someone need to do to replicate something like that while being self aware of the change? I’ve read people will say trauma but at the same time everyone reacts differently to it.

By change I mean things like change in fears, general and micro mannerisms, speech, and so on; down to the smallest details of the things we do without knowing it - how would such a change be possible if someone is actively trying? or is that big of a change just blown out of proportion by media?

Thankyou.

What are the ways in which financial insecurity (while gowing up) can play tricks throughout an adults life? Is it possible to ever get rid of it completely, with no remnants whatsoever? Getting rich doesn't heal the scars of a troubled childhood

What things should we avoid that we might not no about to protect mental health

What characteristics would make you sure that someone is autistic?

its widely considered on the internet that romanticizing mental illness is both harmful to ones self and harmful to others. however, ive never had it quite explained why and how this is, or if its even true at all.

im not asking for personal advice, I just want to provide background for why im asking this. for me personally, i find that romanticizing my issues helps me feel better. by dressing it up and making it cute, they're easier to deal with. im constantly told that this makes me a bad person so id like to know whether they're right or not.

Dear Community,

If a human has no fear or disgust from the dead, is he normal ? People who work as caretakers, embalmists, perform ritual washing before funeral and so on.

Thanks

Psychedelic science has been heating up. There has been lots of talk about MDMA for PTSD and psilocybin for depression. It's been difficult to sift through the hype to find the actual positive and negative results. What are the most significant evidence-based findings about psychedelics and how can we apply them when talking to communities who use psychedelics?

Parentification apparently only applies to your parents doing that? But being "parentified" by your partner is so common there should be a term for it, right?

E.g. if a person not presenting with any symptoms of depression gets evaluated by a therapist, and that therapist incorrectly diagnoses them with major depressive disorder, is it possible to cause harm to that person? Could it cause a previously contented person to come to believe they're clinically depressed?

I don't know if there are any studies on such a phenomenon, but it sounds like an experiment that would never make it past an IRB. There seems to be a lot of literature on the effects of misdiagnosis, i.e. when a patient is suffering from something and a practitioner genuinely believes they have XYZ and it turns out to be something else, but not "disdiagnosis", i.e. when a practitioner diagnoses a healthy person with something that's not there.

What is the deep rooted reason people need extra reassurance? Is it a trauma response or is there a scientific reason? The more detail the better, thank you

Professional athletes get paid thousands and millions because not only they generate tons of wealth for others but also because sports in general are watched by other humans; I mean, the prize money and the tickets wouldn't be so pricey if there were only few people watching each sport. So why do humans pay to watch someone do something that is difficult but existentially sounds simple and meaningless: tennis; you hold a racket and you put a little yellow ball on the other side of this man-made court, basketball; you put a hard bouncing ball through a man-made hoop for artificial points, football; you kick a ball around a huge grass field with man-made white lines and goal with the artificial purpose of kicking the ball inside your opponents' goal.

I have the Absurdism philosophy of Albert Camus in mind: aren't these games silly and absurd? In any case, I am asking this sub for psychological answers.

I have three questions in total: • Is it possible to create a personality core strong enough to remain unchangeable from youth? • Is it possible to create a personality completely opposite to what was supposed to develop in that type of environment? • Is it possible to create a personality without the influence of external factors, even when they are present?

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Why is ocpd called "obsessive compulsive " personality when it dosent involve "obsessions or compulsions ..