/r/Neuropsychology
Neuropsychology is both an experimental and clinical branch of psychology that aims to understand how cognitive functions (memory, attention, etc.) and behavior are related to brain structure and functioning. Although the focus is typically on how injuries or illnesses of the brain (i.e., pathological functions) affect cognition and behavior, it also includes the study normal (i.e., non-pathological) functioning, cognition, and behavior.
Information about neuropsychology, neuroanatomy, neurodevelopment, studying neuropsychology, being a neuropsychologist, and related topics. Full-text articles and well-written science journalism write-ups of recent papers are especially encouraged, but of course questions, comments, and general musings are welcome!
Please note: General questions about a personal experience you are having are allowed in this subreddit (e.g., "Can anyone explain the functional neuroanatomy behind this random and benign thing that I do?"), but if you need medical advice, please go see a medical professional. Posts that are clearly seeking medical advice about a medical problem will be removed. The advice of internet strangers -- even if they are neuropsychologists! -- is no substitute for professional health care.
Please also note: A basic wiki page for this subreddit has been created. If you have questions about what a neuropsychologist is/does, the steps to becoming a neuropsychologist, or where you can get resources to assist you at any stage of training/practice, check it out!
/r/Neuropsychology
I'm hoping this is the correct place to ask this. (If not please sign post me, it seems to cross specialties.
I'm wondering if there is a physiological reason for dysphoria. I have googled and searched reddit but I simply get results for gender dysphoria.
Some breastfeeding feeding mothers suffer DMER - dysphoric milk ejection reflex, which if I'm not mistaken is a physiological process linked with hormones and a dip in serotonin (I believe) as let down occurs.
What I'm wondering if this could happen with other hormonal changes, such as menstrual cycles, menopause and even for Testosterone levels changing with age... and perhaps have implicating for drugs like GLP1?
I'm asking here as it seems like a brain response to hormones or lack thereof.
Please could anyone offer any research they know of? Or opinions. I understand this is a very broad question and feel free to debunk my pondering, I'm just curious to how it's all linked.
TIA.
Im struggling with language expression greatly right now/lately so I'll just make a short simple post/question to start off with-
Is it not normal for a comprehensive neuropsychological assessment to not have included assessment for learning disorders/disabilities/differences as well?
I went through testing after a TBI I had gotten and to assess for adhd/autistic-like symptoms, and I know LD testing is usually included within that as wouldn't it be irresponsible to not test for those?
Everything I see about comprehensive neuropsych assessments include LDs too, so I'm confused why I was never tested, like, at all? I was anticipating that I wouldve been and assumed I was, but when going over my entire report, there's no mention of it and didn't include the testing relevant at all.
This stands out as weird to me and in contrast to others' experiences with neuropsych testing and what it includes. On the practice's website they explicitly mention LD testing assessment in addition to their other things...
TLDR:
What I'm asking is essentially isn't it standard practice that LD testing/assessment is included in comprehensive neuropsychological tests?
Edit:
Some reason the post was locked without any explanation????
By LDs I meant things like dyslexia, dyscalculia , language/processing issues, etc
Was mainly asking in general but realize now it's alot more context dependent I guess.
The adhd and LD-like (as can't really reliably self dx of course) stuff was very prominent prior to my concussion and was coincidentally very bad/severe Symptom wise which is what was initially pushing/driving me to find out wtf was going on and to get help/therapy/support/strategies for what I was having alot of issue with/rearing its head and therefore went for assessment in addition to checking TBI things.
I wasn't ever told that learning disorder stuff wouldn't be included/tested for, but told it would be comprehensive. The neuropsych dx'd adhd and autism after a 4-5ish hr battery of tests. Very spiky profile/discrepancies. Got a list of suggestions/accommodations but no referral/mention of probing concerns/further testing for learning disorder stuff. I'm college age.
When I was around 12 or 13 I had a earlier neuropsych assessment which showed average academic achievement although my scores and discrepancies were more indicative of learning disorders given of higher scoring iq - 120s - and is mentioned to be lower than what would be expected based on my strengths/where I'm at/education level for lack of better wording.
Had very large discrepancies with very low working memory and PSI if I remember correctly of the top of my head.
I can supply my general results but was initially just wondering if it should've been included or not. I went through alot of weird language and ot/pt stuff therapy as a kid and have family history of dyslexia and dyscalculia.
When I was in grad school, I was taught that radial glia cells can only form in the womb.
But i've read other sources that say otherwise, they mention that radial glia cells can occur in children & adults
I'm a person that, by certain metrics, would be considered to have significant working memory deficits as well as dyslexia and dysgraphia.
I don't intend to focus on neurospychological testing in my career. However, I am going into a clinical phd program where a large swath of the training involves practicing neurospychological assessments and eventually administering them.
Do my disabilities preclude me from being able to administer these assessments?
I can also imagine that I will likely be assessed by other students in the training. Which sounds daunting and potentially triggering but I think I can do it if needed.
Any insight is appreciated. Thank you!
Specifically interested in what happens to the brain in this process and what parts of the brain are implicated. Thank you.
So I'm planning on neuropsycholgy as a career because it aligns with my subject interests as well as my passion to help people, but idk how well it pays. I'm worried because I don't want to go into it only to get paid peanuts.
Hey, I'm looking to start in studying Neuropsychology but I currently have no resources and a lack of direction in how I should approach learning this subject.
I have quite a bit of time on my hands and I'm really excited to begin learning as fast as I can, but I don't won't to risk rushing down a path that isn't the most efficient.
If anyone could point me in the right direction or even refer to me some useful materials, I'd appreciate it quite a lot.
I’ve seen Anti-psychotics being prescribed to people with autism but didn’t understand the mechanism and reasoning behind it and if there are alternatives
Hi! I am currently majoring in psych and minoring in neuroscience. My concentration is cognitive neuroscience. I want to go into neuropsychology. I want to get a PhD. I'm interested in research and clinical. I want to go out of the US for it. I'm interested in going to Germany. Originally I was on the fence about neuro or psych. My interest is the two together and less separately. I'm also a transfer student and this is a new major. There is overlap though amongst the class. I know it would be intense and I'd have to be a better student. If you did it was it worth it? Would love any thoughts.
Hey Everyone,
Welcome to the r/Neuropsychology weekly education, training, and professional development megathread. The subreddit gets a large proportion of incoming content dedicated to questions related to the schooling and professional life of neuropsychologists. Most of these questions can be answered by browsing the subreddit function; however, we still get many posts with very specific and individualized questions (often related to coursework, graduate programs, lab research etc.).
Often these individualized questions are important...but usually only to the OP given how specific and individualized they are. Because of this, these types of posts are automatically removed as they don't further the overarching goal of the subreddit in promoting high-quality discussion and information related to the field of neuropsychology. The mod team has been brainstorming a way to balance these two dilemmas, this recurring megathread will be open every end for a limited time to ask any question related to education, or other aspects of professional development in the field of neuropsychology. In addition to that, we've compiled (and will continue to gather) a list of quick Q/A's from past posts and general resources below as well.
So here it is! General, specific, high quality, low quality - it doesn't matter! As long as it is, in some way, related to the training and professional life of neuropsychologists, it's fair game to ask - as long as it's contained to this megathread! And all you wonderful subscribers can fee free to answer these questions as they appear. The post will remain sticked for visibility and we encourage everyone to sort by new to find the latest questions and answers.
Also, here are some more common general questions and their answers that have crossed the sub over the years:
Stay classy r/Neuropsychology!
I am trying to understand Akinetic Mutism.
Is there a well defined line between Akinetic Mutism vs. Abulia? Specifically is it possible for Akinetic Mutism to be drug induced and resolve when an opposing receptor antagonist is introduced?
If someone communicates nonverbally i.e. through electric means, does that rule out Akinetic Mutism when other symptoms are there such as inability to speak and difficulty moving?
Hi everyone!
I‘ve come across the so-called Canadian Criteria for ME/CFS and they call for certain cognitive functions to be impaired. I would love to know if impairment starts at percentile 16 (1 standard deviation) or percentile 2 (2 standard deviations)?
I'm looking for norms on the F of the COWAT. Any recommendations where I can find this?
Hello all. We, like many, are on an extensive wait list for behavior health for our 4 year old. Like they aren't processing referrals until summer 2026.
I found another office that has openings in 2-3 weeks for a neuropsych eval. However they are private pay only in the range of 3-5k depending on services rendered.
Today, on the 2nd day at a new preschool, the director suggested going thru the school department for prek and getting them to do an eval. She feels he would benefit from a 1x1 for certain transitions.(I think it's called Child Find, located in USA)
My main concern with prek is in watching families I know struggle to receive consistent services (OT, speech) due to lack of staff. We already privately pay for these services 1x1 and I hate to lose our progress just to go to PreK.
My question really is, is it worth the extensive neuropsych eval at this age or would a school eval be sufficient? As of right now we have no diagnosis but I suspect ADHD / PDA profile / some sort of delay in processing. Emotional hypersensitivity and disregulation is the biggest concern. Both preschool and speech, do not feel he's on the ASD spectrum but noted they cannot give that diagnosis either.
Do I fork over the money for a full clinical evaluation? Wait and do that down the road?
If you've made it this far, thank you.
I’m from an underdeveloped country and I was wondering if we as neuropsychologists should be doing competency evaluations. What level of evidence is there for this?
Edit: i meant capacity, sorry for the confusion
Hello, this question has been on my mind for months now and I don’t know whom to ask. Im willing to take a master’s in CNP, I looked at the requirements and they perfectly match what I studied, but Im afraid I wont be able to work as a CNP. And yes during my bachelor’s in SLP we must study psychology and psychiatry , so in total I studied 2 years of psychology, pedopsychology and psychiatry.
Hi there, not a doctor just an overly curious and thirsty for knowledge person. This question keeps me up late at night. Are people with schizophrenia 100% ill, or is there some element of supernatural they can connect to that the average person can’t?
If we distance ourself from the scientific pov a bit
Are they experiencing hallucinations or they can be actually up to something… do they actually see/have visions of things beyond the physical?
Cuz I wouldn’t be too quick to dismiss and label someone “insane” right away when it comes to such a complicated issue.
Out of curiosity I took some online sample tests to see what type of questions do professionals ask to diagnose (I found very detailed ones long and a good bunch of questions asked - ofc at the bottom of every slide there was “this is just for reference- normal diagnoses are done only by a professional” etc
But … let's say a person who simply follows the new age practices or leans more intuitive and "spiritual"would answer yes to most if not all of these questions. Like, “do you feel special?” “Do you feel you have some sort of gift you can’t really explain?” “Do you feel like you can see/feel/hear stuff that’s beyond the physical veil?” “Do you feel that you are being watched/stalked by an entity?” Okay so then, what happens with those who have the 6th sense and are able to communicate with spirits and entities on the other side? Are they schizophrenic? Is it all entirely in their head? Cuz science would say they're crazy for hearing voices and seeing things that are not there, but there's people who GENUINELY have this ability and deliver prophetic messages of things that actually happen.
By extension, would NDEs then be also considered schizo episodes?
And if yes then why do nearly all NDE cases report encountering passed loved ones/family members from the other side etc and not someone living?
I come from a place of wondering … does science rush too fast to label someone “sick” and “insane” without examining the possibility of them being up to something or are we truly talking about cases of people who have completely lost it?
Is it a case by case thing? Are some more “lost causes” than others? Are there genuinely people who are gifted to have these premonitions and visions and omens etc?
What’s your take on it?
Hi! Sorry if this is a "stupid" question. I'm planning to apply to combined MA/PhD Psychology programs once I get out of undergrad. I'm very interested in aging and cognition, and this is the work I've done in my undergrad research lab. I really enjoy research and DON'T forsee myself going into clinical psychology. HOWEVER, I don't want to be trapped in academia after getting my PhD (I love research but I am unsure if I want to go into academia long-term, low pay, high burnout, no faculty positions).
Becoming a neuropsychologist is interesting to me, it seems like a decent paying job, not in academia, and involves cognitive assessment of people who might have cognitive impairment. I know there are certifications you must obtain to become a neuropsychologist. But can you even become one if your PhD is in research/experimental Psychology and not Clinical Psychology?
Hello! My newly 4 year old son was recently diagnosed with Autism, level 2. He has a significant speech delay but he's starting to catch up more to his peers and I would not consider him non-speaking or even pre-speaking anymore. We did a neuropsychological exam for him and he had a surprisingly low FSIQ (62). The breakdown of the score shows that some areas (visual reasoning/working memory) are average and some (verbal reasoning/processing speed) are very bellow average.
The question I have, I guess, is can the number change over time when his language situation improves? Given that he has a severe articulation disorder, and has always had the speech delay, could that be impacting his scores in a way that is not reflective of his life-long stable IQ measure, or does the test take this kind of uneven development into account? When we got the results, the neuropsychologist seemed to suggest we'd retest in 2 years "just to see" but was not clear on what in fact we were just seeing. So I'm trying to understand how the measure itself works and how it behaves on these younger autistic children with speech imparements.
This is not an invitation to diagnose or discuss my son in partocular, since that is against rule 1. I want to undersatnd the measure itself, since I was always taught it's unmoving and unbiased, but working with a child with this level of language delay has called that into question for me.
Hi everyone,
I am close to finishing my undergrad, and going to do a post-bacc for a year before hopefully getting a PhD in clinical psych (w an emphasis in neuropsych).
I feel like it is a popular conception that if you get a PhD in psychology, you are almost always going to go into academia. I don't have a problem with this, but I was wondering if someone could explain how this works for clinical practice (or if it is true at all)
The thing that I dislike/ am apprehensive about in regards to going into academia is the research side of things. I do enjoy research, and I will be fine with doing it throughout grad school, but I find the thought of spending most of my time for my full career on research daunting. I have heard bad things about being pressured to publish to make tenure, and being forced to research certain topics because those are the only grants available.
I guess my main question is, how common is it to be a neuropsychologist without being involved in academia? Is there a pressure to go into academia, and if you do, is there pressure to publish/ make tenure?
I'm thinking of opening a private practice soon, and looking into various business models. I do neuropsychological evaluations for adults, with an emphasis on geriatric cases. I'm very interested in helping people who might otherwise be underserved.
My understanding is that insurance contracts generally require you to offer the lowest price you offer anyone to their clients. So I sometimes do pro-bono work, I'd also have to charge $0 when billing Blue Cross (for example). For that reason, I wonder if going fully self-pay and having a sliding scale would allow me to reach the most people. The sliding scale would be consistent and posted publicly so that there's no question about how fair it is, and then I charge a lower rate for people with greater financial need.
But is this even necessary? Is there a significant population of people who need neuropsych evaluations but can't afford them? Especially since the affordable care act, it seems like most people have some sort of insurance, and geriatric patients are almost always on medicare. Plus, referrals almost always come from other doctors, so the people I'd be seeing are already in the medical system for the most part...
Any thoughts would be greatly appreciated, as would any ideas on serving underserved populations.
I've been looking everywhere for a test on latent inhibition, or at least research which shows or attempts to show the clear, every day manifestations and not some abstract idea of "taking everything in", which can be interpreted in many different ways.
Hey Everyone,
Welcome to the r/Neuropsychology weekly education, training, and professional development megathread. The subreddit gets a large proportion of incoming content dedicated to questions related to the schooling and professional life of neuropsychologists. Most of these questions can be answered by browsing the subreddit function; however, we still get many posts with very specific and individualized questions (often related to coursework, graduate programs, lab research etc.).
Often these individualized questions are important...but usually only to the OP given how specific and individualized they are. Because of this, these types of posts are automatically removed as they don't further the overarching goal of the subreddit in promoting high-quality discussion and information related to the field of neuropsychology. The mod team has been brainstorming a way to balance these two dilemmas, this recurring megathread will be open every end for a limited time to ask any question related to education, or other aspects of professional development in the field of neuropsychology. In addition to that, we've compiled (and will continue to gather) a list of quick Q/A's from past posts and general resources below as well.
So here it is! General, specific, high quality, low quality - it doesn't matter! As long as it is, in some way, related to the training and professional life of neuropsychologists, it's fair game to ask - as long as it's contained to this megathread! And all you wonderful subscribers can fee free to answer these questions as they appear. The post will remain sticked for visibility and we encourage everyone to sort by new to find the latest questions and answers.
Also, here are some more common general questions and their answers that have crossed the sub over the years:
Stay classy r/Neuropsychology!
I have been hearing some conflicting opinions on this and wanted to know professional opinions. Cheers
I'm choosing my major for college and I have a few questions regarding neuropsychology as a career:
-Can you go into this field if you have mental illness? -What did you major in? How long was school? -What's your day to day life? -Is it worth it? -Is the field competitive?
Can't think of more but feel free to answer any you think of
We talk about weeks, months or years?
And if you make impressions about what diagnoses someone might get before looking over the data, how often are you right?
I read in other parts of the body, the scar cells get replaced after several years with original tissue
Can glial scars be gradually removed over time, or are they permanent?
Even in areas of the brain where neurogenesis takes place?
I was reading that If the conditions which caused the insult have been resolved, the process of replacing the scar can happen
a neural stem cells first specialize into a type of glial progenitor cell (radial glia) and those control the scaffolding and specialization of other stem cells into new neurons. This process takes place throughout our lifetime, albeit slower with age. Very small scars are formed and removed on a constant basis.
For instance, there may be overlooked connections in the literature between symptoms such as x, y, or z and unilateral hypoplasia of the internal jugular vein, which is likely to be labeled as a normal anatomical variant.
There are sporadic studies delving into this, but given technological progress, shouldn't we be re-crunching the numbers at least once every decade to see if these variants should still be considered normal?