The Quran often uses verses (3:190, 88:17-20, 21:30) that draw attention to natural phenomena such as the sky, mountains, camels or other aspects of creation. Does this mean the Quran is presenting an argument for the existence of God? Were there many atheists in Arabia at that time, or is the Quran addressing a different kind of disbelief?

I'm more familiar with biblical criticism and it's my major academic interest but I thought I would dip my toes into learning more about Islam and the Quran from an academic point of view. So what are some good academic Quran translations that you all would recommend? I have a copy of the clear Quran that I got several years ago but I don't think it's academic since it looks pretty dawah oriented.

There’s a heavily edited “short” version at 1h20m, and the pretty much unedited “long” version at 3h44m. Take a look at the feed for both, and maybe even subscribe?

Apple: https://podcasts.apple.com/us/podcast/church-coffee-christianity-conservatism-and-culture/id1556894520

Spotify: https://open.spotify.com/show/7t3jmKVEBVI8k5kXYa5luu

Other upcoming eps include: • Historical Jesus 1: Fr. Anthony Giambrone • Historical Jesus 2: Dr. Shaily Patel of VT. • Paganism vs Neo-paganism, with Dr. Larissa Carneiro of Duke. • Historical Jesus 3: Dr. Michael Daise of W&M. • Early Christian-Muslim Relations, with Dr. Christian Sahner of Oxford. • Historically Verified Biblical People, with Dr. Larry Mykytiuk of Purdue.

Preferably something realistic for someone living in a western country. I’m not considering moving to Saudi Arabia or the UAE an option lol

In the miraj Hadiths I believe the idea of Al buraq is influenced by the griffin like creature that accompanies Abraham in the apocalypse of Abraham,do scholars hold this view?

Welcome to this week's open discussion thread!

The Weekly Open Discussion Thread allows users to have a broader range of conversations compared to what is normally allowed on other posts. The current style is to only enforce Rules 1 and 6. Therefore, there is not a strict need for referencing and more theologically-centered discussions can be had here. In addition, you may ask any questions as you normally might want to otherwise.

Feel free to discuss your perspectives or beliefs on religious or philosophical matters, but do not preach to anyone in this space. Preaching and proselytizing will be removed.

Enjoy!

By Shari'ah I refer to a set of divine-revealed orders to organize the public and personal life. My question is specifically on Early Islam, the pre-Umayyad era, Islam in the Muhammadan and Rashidun eras. Also, my question is on general spiritual, personal, and social life organization. I.g., I'm not asking if Islam had a systematic ideology for society or etc.

Thus, two questions arise:

1- Did Early Islam had anything resembling Shari'ah?

2- If it did so, and if we presuppose that this Shari'ah is composed of Arabiyan spiritual and social customs: Can we know about the nature of Early Islam demarcation between the secular and the religious? Put otherwise: when and how did Arabs see these everyday customs as divinely-revealed orders?

• Readings are much appreciated.

Hello.. Rookie civilian here... What's Caetani's and his works' reputations within the Islamic studies academia?

Thanks

I'm looking for a book that provides a comprehensive overview of Hadith criticism and evaluation methods. I'm particularly interested in a work that reflects the consensus of contemporary scholarship.

the book should cover:

• The historical context of Hadith compilation
• The various schools of Hadith criticism
• Contemporary debates and controversies surrounding Hadith

Qur'an 74:30-31...the verse mentions the number 19. Also states that the number has been made a test for the disbelievers, while increasing faith for the believers. Some people have connected this number with a code theory,proposed by Rashad Khalifa. I find it speculative. It feels like he is trying to fit everything with 19,even rejecting verses for it. It's like shooting first and drawing a circle around it later.

My question is: How do academics interpret this verse? What are their perspectives on the significance of the number 19 in this context and its role as a test for the disbelievers and a means of increasing faith for the believers?

Moses encountered an angel, whom biblical traditions often equate with YHWH, the God of Israel.

And the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed. And Moses said, I will now turn aside, and see this great sight, why the bush is not burnt.(Exodus 3:2-3)

This is the one who was in the congregation in the wilderness with the Angel who spoke to him in Mount Sinai, and with our fathers, who received living Words to give to us,(acts 7:38)

Then he said, “I am the God of your father,[a] the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob.” At this, Moses hid his face, because he was afraid to look at God.(Exodus 3:6)

Similarly, Muhammad is supposed to have been encountered by an angel, later identified in Islamic tradition as Gabriel—the same angel believed to have spoken to Moses.

The Prophet (ﷺ) returned to Khadija while his heart was beating rapidly. She took him to Waraqa bin Naufal who was a Christian convert and used to read the Gospels in Arabic Waraqa asked (the Prophet), "What do you see?" When he told him, Waraqa said, "That is the same angel whom Allah sent to the Prophet) Moses. Should I live till you receive the Divine Message, I will support you strongly."

The identificatin of Gabriel as the angel of YHWH might have been influenced by new testament traditions where the angel of YHWH appeared to people (especially concerning Jesus). In the New Testament the Greek phrase ἄγγελος Κυρίου (angelos kuriou—"angel of the Lord") is found in Matthew 1:20, 1:24, 2:13, 2:19, 28:2; Luke 1:11, 2:9; )

Then an angel of the Lord appeared to him, standing at the right side of the altar of incense (Luke 1:11)

In Islamic teachings, Gabriel is also described as the one who delivered the Qur'an, which the Qur'an itself attributes directly to Allah.

"Indeed, We sent it [the Qur'an] down during the Night of Decree."

"And indeed, it [the Qur'an] is a revelation of the Lord of the worlds. The Trustworthy Spirit [Jibril] has brought it down upon your heart, [O Muhammad]—that you may be of the warners.” (26:192-194)

The identification of Gabriel as holy spirit is profound in rabbinical literature as talmud Sanhedrin 44b :5 even calls gabriel “spirit paskonit”.

The line from the Prophet’s bard, Ḥassān ibn Thābit equates Gabriel with holy spirit, a figure who shares God's essence ("Is the Spirit God? Most certainly", Gregory of Nazianzus, Oration 31.10)

wa-jibrīlun rasūlu ’llāhi minnā wa-rūḥu ’l-qudsi laysa lahu kifāʾ And Gabriel is the messenger of God among us (?) And the Holy Spirit, who has no like.

Gabriel the “noble angel (rasūl karīm)” (69:40), is supposed to be equal with The Holy Spirit (rūḥ al-quds)” (16:102),“the Trustworthy Spirit (al-rūḥ al-amīn)” (26:193) who has sent down the Quran, the figure whom Muhammad identified as Allah

Can we then conclude that Gabriel is another name for YHWH, a figure whom Muhammad identified as Allah?

I’m aware of the hadith of Buraida, but according to hadith exegesis that I’ve read, this hadith dates back before the conquest of Mecca. Scholars noted it mentions asking any new believers to make hijrah, while there was no more hijrah after the conquest of Mecca.

As such, most classical scholars—mostly Shafi’i, Hanafi and Hanbali—rejected this hadith as evidence for taking jizya from Arab polytheists, as they believe it was abrogated following the revelation of Qur’an 9:5, which in turn came after the conquest of Mecca.

Does anyone know of any other hadith where Muhammad takes jizya from Arab polytheists that can be dated back to after the revelation of Surah Al Tawbah?

It needs to specifically be Arabian polytheists. Not Jews, Christians or Zoroastrians.

Also, i‘m aware there is a modern revisionist view that polytheism died out in Arabia before Islam. So let’s just assume history happened on Islam‘s terms.

"Abu Farwa" is credited with narrating a hadith where Muhammad lowers his head and does not respond to Jibril and narrating a hadith where it's prophesied "the deaf and dumb become kings of the Earth" in Sahih Muslim. Who is Abu Farwa? Is he Abu Hurarya? Who narrated the hadith where Muhammad does not respond to Jibril?

Theres still artifacts from the first migration to Abyssinia there, and many inscriptions like this for instance: https://www.reddit.com/r/Eritrea/comments/1h1szl6/eritrean_history_ancient_arabic_writings_in/

Looks like an untouched gold mine, considering so much Islamic inscriptions, mosque ruins, etc are left.

I am reading the Quran as a non-Muslim. I am asking from innocence.

The Bible also gives God the attribute of being merciful, but without careful study, I believe that this label is used less.

Background: For a bit of time now I have been doing some research on the Quran thus I have questions to ask. I am trying to get it from an objective point of view but my purpose for the answers is to reflect on my faith as I identify as Muslim. Also answers 1-5 do not need much depth a yes/no will suffice.

Q1) Does the Quran most likely have a single author from academic point of view.

Q2) Does the Quran have rich literature from an Academic point of view.

Q3) Is the produce something like it challenge in the Quran subjective or objective?

Q4) Is the Quran from a pure literary point of view unique enough that it would be very tough or impossible for someone to produce something with a similar style to it?

Q5) Do Academics believe Prophet Muhammed PBUH was illiterate?

—————-

Q6) If answers are yes then would someone who wrote the Quran need an estimated IQ of 150-160 and if it was Prophet Muhammed PBUH what are the odds someone who wrote the Quran was known as trust-worthy by his community and people around him and had a 150-160 IQ?

Q7) Assuming you were a betting man would you bet the Quran is man-made? And what evidence do you have to support this? By Man-made I mean no divine revelation

Does the fact that tafsirs borrowed material from apocryphal and pseudopigraphal material show that the idea of scriptural corruption (tahrif) is a late development? And that there was once a time were proto Sunni scholars looked to Christian’s and Jewish pseudopigrapha to fill the gaps?

Was the story influenced by a midrashic episode?